- sell stock
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It doesnt make sense, you borrow shares and sell them immeaditly, the money from this transaction is given as collateral to the lender, but the broker credits your account and holds the money. You buy the same amount of shares at a cheaper price, how would you get this difference? its not like the lender would get these shares at a lower price and the difference of there original value is given to you. Its like the money came from nowhere unless you keep the difference of someone else's original share price... which i know isnt the case. What am i missing?
Additional Details None of you are getting my main question. IF YOU BORROW SHARES FROM SOMEONE AND GIVE THEM BACK TO THE PERSON AT A CHEAPER PRICE, THE LENDER LOST VALUE ON THOSE SHARES.
"Two outcomes: The stock goes to 50c. You buy 100 shares for $50, give the shares back to me and keep the difference of $50"(ray) THIS SHOWS EXCACTLY WHAT I SAID ABOVE, THE LENDER IS GIVEN 50C PER SHARE WHEN THEY WERE ORIGINALLY 1$, AND HE ONLY GETS THE PREMIUM, THAT SOUNDS LIKE A LOT OF RISK IF ITS SET UP THIS WAY FOR THE LENDER OF COURSE
"Two outcomes: The stock goes to 50c. You buy 100 shares for $50, give the shares back to me and keep the difference of $50"(ray) THIS SHOWS EXCACTLY WHAT I SAID ABOVE, THE LENDER IS GIVEN 50C PER SHARE WHEN THEY WERE ORIGINALLY 1$, AND HE ONLY GETS THE PREMIUM, THAT SOUNDS LIKE A LOT OF RISK IF ITS SET UP THIS WAY
Help with the concept of short selling?
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